The other week, we read an interesting and intriguing paper by Joe Levine and Kelly Trogdon on “The Modal Status of Materialism” (Phil.Studies), arguing that the contingency of physicalism clashes with the necessity of realization and physicalist supervenience. The upshot isn’t that such a clash can be avoided, but that we shouldn’t think of physicalism as contingent. I was a bit perplexed by the argument. For one thing, I think it’s fair to say it’s a bit on the convoluted side (the reconstruction below, if correct, suggests so). For another, some premises struck me as unobvious at best. I wasn’t the only one to be perplexed, but some of us thought the argument was fine and I failed to put my finger more precisely on what worried me. So I’ll try again. Since I still don’t really have any good grasp of the argument, I’ll limit myself to trying to reconstruct it, and outline some of my puzzlement here and there.

It starts with an explanation (including some motivations) for the two claims that are supposed to clash.

WHY IS PHYSICALISM CONTINGENT?
The authors give the following explanation:
(1)    some physical facts are brute (=x is brute if “there is no illuminating explanation for why it is x”)—they cite some physical magnitudes such as the speed of light as brute.
(2)    brute metaphysical necessities don’t make sense: if something is brute, it can be actual but it “could have been otherwise” (if it can’t have been otherwise, it can’t be brute).
(3)    Unless they are grounded in logic (logical truths are necessary but not brute, since there is an explanation for their necessity), there can’t be brute metaphysical necessities.
(4)    Hence, physicalism is contingent: if it weren’t, it’d be committed to unacceptable brute metaphysical necessities.

There’s a couple of things that already seem strange to me here:
i) I just don’t understand (2). For one thing, if there really are brute facts, it seems to me there can be brute metaphysical necessities. For instance,

There are some possible worlds.

That’s necessarily true since it’s true at every possible world (though not true of any possible world: it’s a bit like atemporal truths that are true at every time, though not of every time—to borrow an idea from Kit Fine). But it doesn’t seem to be a logical truth—certainly not one the necessity of which can be explained in the usual way in terms of its syntax via a truth-table. And it seems to be brute, or at least as deserving of the title as anything else. For another, I don’t really have the intuition that actual brute facts are ok, but necessary ones aren’t. Brute facts strike me as puzzling and undesirable in one’s metaphysics, but I don’t really see how their necessity should add to their puzzlingness and undesirability.

ii) more importantly, I don’t understand how (4) is supposed to follow from (1) and (2). The traditional way of spelling out physicalism is in terms of physicalist supervenience: the physical facts determine all the facts so that any difference in the non-physical facts comes with a difference in the physical facts (that’s one way to phrase it). No matter how you phrase it, this is supposed to capture what’s the crucial claim in common between different kinds of physicalists. Physicalists also usually agree that there is some explanation of some kind for why the supervenience thesis is true, but they largely disagree about what the form of that explanation will be (or are agnostic).

But now, suppose physicalist supervenience isn’t contingent, but necessary. Since most physicalists think there is a further explanation for why that claim is true, physicalist supervenience can be necessary, but there’s no reason to think it’ll be brute. So, even granting (2), it’s hard to see how this entails (4). It’s also hard to see how physicalist supervenience + (1) and (2) would entail (4). There may be brute physical facts (1), but (even if physicalism is necessary) no physicalist would be tempted, it seems to me, to think that all physical facts are necessary. In other words, physicalism is not really a thesis about physical facts as such (certainly not about any particular physical fact). It’s a claim about the relation between physical facts and non-physical facts—so (1) in no way suggests that such a relation is brute.

iii) what’s also strange about L&T’s reconstruction of the motivation for the contingency of physicalism is that it’s not the motivation its defenders appeal to (L&T cite Lewis and Jackson). The explicit motivation (amongst others) seems to be one the authors mention at the end of their paper: dualism is not incoherent, so there must be some possible worlds in which it’s true. Also, a certain kind of epistemic humility about possible worlds may be at play: we don’t know all the possible worlds there are, and some may be quite different from the actual world. Finally, I suspect, there may be strategic motivations too: the contingency of physicalism, which, for Lewis and Jackson, comes with some restrictions on the sets of worlds in which global physicalist supervenience is supposed to hold, provides more room to manoeuvre against various anti-physicalist arguments, including the conceivability and possibility of zombies (if physicalist supervenience is true only in those worlds that are minimal physical duplicates of our world—i.e., same physical properties, same distribution (Lewis’83 and Jackson’ 98 differ a tiny bit here), same laws, and no alien properties—then zombies can be conceivable and possible, provided zombie-worlds aren’t minimal physical duplicates and/or have some alien property: thus, when you claim to be able to conceive of zombies, can you really rule out that you’re not conceiving of a world that has a tiny physical difference or some tiny alien property in it?).

Now to the second claim that’s supposed to be clashing with the first.

REALIZATION, SUPERVENIENCE, AND NECESSITY
L&T spell out the claims and its motivation along the following lines:
(5)    for physicalists, physical facts realize mental facts.
(6)    Realization has to be more than just lawful correlation, because dualists like Chalmers accept lawful correlations between physical facts and mental facts.
(7)    Realizers must necessitate their realizees.

So far, so good. The only worry here is dialectical. Physicalists who take physicalism to be contingent formulate physicalist supervenience as a global supervenience thesis about worlds (and not the properties of individuals in those worlds, as in strong supervenience), where the sets of worlds where such a thesis is supposed to be true is restricted to nearby possible worlds that are minimal physical duplicates of our world, rather than being “about all possible worlds”, as L&T suggest.

In contrast, the authors use strong (unrestricted) supervenience: “if my pain is realized by my brain state, then in no possible world can there be a creature in a type-identical brain state who isn’t in pain”.

The worry (a question rather) is this. First, to see whether there really is a clash between the contingency of physicalism and physicalist supervenience, it seems it would help to consider what contingent physicalists think about supervenience—namely, use their version of physicalist supervenience. Second, those physicalists who use strong supervenience may not accept (or care much about) the contingency of physicalism—I don’t know whether or not they do. L&T cite Shoemaker and Melnyk and I’m ignorant of the details of their respective views, sadly. But it’d better not be the case that, in arguing that there’s a clash between the contingency of physicalism and physicalist supervenience, one pits one kind of physicalist against another. After all, it isn’t news that there must be a clash between (a) some of the claims contingent physicalists hold and (b) some of the claim non-contingent physicalists hold (if there are such actual or possible people). And the authors do nothing to rule out this possible but uncharitable interpretation of their argument.

In this respect, note that if you have a version of physicalist supervenience restricted to a set of nearby worlds (minimal physical duplicates with no alien properties), then, by the authors’ own lights, such supervenience thesis could be brute, since it doesn’t hold across every possible world. If so, the argument below has little traction: if you restrict (8) below, you don’t need to worry about (9), and so you don’t need (10), (11), …

Now, here’s how these two claims are supposed to clash:

THE ARGUMENT
Seems to go something like this:
(8)    Realizers necessitate their realizees.
(9)    But metaphysical necessitation cannot be brute.
(10) however, if the relevant necessity is logical, it’s not brute (because the necessary truth of logical truths can be explained).

Which leads them to introduce what they call the ‘identity doctrine’:
(11) if mental state m is realized by physical state p, p does not logically entail m, but if there is another description f of m, such that m = f, which logically follows from p, then it’s not a brute fact that p necessitates m.
(12) f must be logically entailed by the physiological facts and the laws and the only candidate description meeting these constraints is a functional characterisation specifying a causal role.

And then, the final step, supposed to show that realization clashes with the contingency of physicalism:
(13) but if m = f (mental properties are functional/causal roles), it’s “hard to see how they could be basic in any possible world” (in the sense, according to L&T, that the dualist claims mental properties to be basic, i.e., not realized).
(14) so if physicalism is the view that mental properties are realized (not basic), then physicalism is, if true, necessarily so.

That’s the argument, and a couple of things puzzle me.
i) Obviously, (13) is crucial, but why think it’s true? They consider a couple of ways in which it could be false, which they reject (see below), but no positive reason is offered.

ii) also, the funny thing is that, if, as a physicalist, you think mental states are functional/causal roles, then (13), provided it does the work it’s supposed to, does it alone. That is, given (13) it’s the functionalist account of mental states that clashes with the contingency of physicalism. The necessity of physical supervenience or of realization doesn’t do any (direct) work here. In particular, if (13) is true, it’s not the ‘bottom up’ (as it were) thesis that realizers necessitate their realizees, which entails the necessity of physicalism: it’s the reverse ‘top down’ thesis that mental properties, qua functional roles, have to have realizers (I take it, that’s what (13) amounts to). Third, if all contemporary physicalists are functionalists of some sort (not sure about the ‘all’, but most seem to be), then the worry, if it’s a worry, arises regardless of the necessitation of realization, of physicalist supervenience, and of worries about brute necessities—in other words, given (13), steps (1) to (12) are unnecessary, it seems. So, I’m a bit unclear as to why all this extra stuff was needed (perhaps, the point was to convince non-functionalist physicalists who also worry about brute necessities that they should be functionalists in some way?).

I now turn to L&T’s interesting responses to responses—most of which focus on (13). They consider 6; 2 seem particularly important (and puzzling).

ALIEN MENTAL PROPERTIES
Against (13), one might claim that if actual mental properties are realized (and are realized in every world in which they are instantiated), there could be alien mental properties, which are not realized, and hence basic. Perhaps, the suggestion is that, whilst those mental properties instantiated in our world are functional, it’s possible that there are alien mental properties which aren’t. In which case, we have no reason to think (13) applies to all mental properties: even if it’s true about actual mental properties, it doesn’t follow it applies to alien mental properties. (This could combine with another response L&T consider—ectoplasmic realization—so that, in some dualist worlds where there are alien mental properties which are basic, these basic mental properties realize, in those worlds, the mental properties that are also instantiated in our world.)

To understand their response to this, there are two further assumptions one needs (assumptions L&T put on the table in responding to the possibility of ectoplasmic realization, to the effect that ectoplasms are in fact compatible with physicalism). First, to ensure that alien mental properties (or ectoplasms) are mental, they suggest that mental properties are either conscious or intentional (or both). Second, they suggest that, without going into issues about the nature of the physical, physicalism can be defined as the view that only non-mental properties can be basic (not realized), but all mental properties must be realized. (It’s this definition of physicalism that allows them to claim that either ectoplasms are themselves mental properties which are realized, in which case they are compatible with physicalism, or if they are basic mental properties, then (13) applies. The suggestion that ectoplasms may be alien properties blocks the application of (13).)

L&T’s response seems to be going like this:
(15) if alien mental properties are mental, they must be determinates of the determinable D (conscious and/or intentional). [from first assumption]
(16) if physicalism is true about the actual world, all actual determinates of this determinable D are non-basic (realized) and the determinable itself is actually non-basic. [from second assumption]
(17) if the determinable D is non-basic, then it is necessarily non-basic (its instances are realized in every world in which it is instantiated).
(18) if the determinable D is non-basic in all possible worlds, then all its determinates (including its alien determinates) are non-basic too.
(19) hence, alien mental properties must be realized too.
(20) hence, dualism (the claim that mental properties are basic) is impossible.

Now, as someone pointed out, this seems to be THE master argument in L&T’s paper—the one establishing that physicalism can’t be contingent. Note also that, again, this argument establishes (if it works), rather than relies upon, the claim that realization of mental properties is necessary. So the argument doesn’t really show that contingent physicalism and the necessity of physicalist supervenience or of realization (à la (8)) are incompatible. Rather, it argues for the claim that all mental properties must be realized in every world in which they are instantiated, thus making dualism necessarily false.

Two things about this argument seem strange to me (if I have reconstructed the argument accurately):
i) I just don’t see why premise (17) should be true. It seems to be a particular instance of the following claim:

if property F has G, then necessarily F is G.

And that seems clearly false: just like objects can have contingent properties, the same is true of second-order properties (i.e., the properties of properties). The property of being grey has the property of having an instance right here on my shirt, but it could have failed to have that property. The property of being a computer has the property of being such that it allows one to send emails, but it could have failed to have that property.

In premise (17), this claim is applied to determinable D (being conscious and/or mental), so perhaps there is something special about determinables such that, if a determinable has a certain feature, it has it necessarily? But it doesn’t seem so: the property of being red has the property of spanning a spectral reflectance range from, say (approximately), 660 nm to 690 nm, but it could have spun a slightly different range; and it has the property of being seen by humans, but could have failed to. And the property of being a mammal has the property of being instantiated in the actual world, and the property of being instantiated by no flying creature (I think!), but it could have failed to. (note how these are examples of relational properties, just like the property of being realized or basic are).

This isn’t to say that no second-order property is necessary: it may be that red, in order to be the colour that it is, has to have certain resemblance relations to yellow and orange, say. But then the question is: which properties of a determinable are necessary and which ones aren’t, and what sort of reasons do we have to answer such questions? L&T offer no such reason to motivate (17)—in fact, they don’t even try to motivate (17) in any way. It’s hard to see why being realized should be a necessary property of mental properties, especially if physicalism is contingent. In this respect, it’s hard to resist the impression that (17) simply begs the question.

ii) I have a similar problem with (18). It seems to be a particular instance of the claim:

if a determinable D has property F (in all possible worlds), then all its  determinates (in all possible worlds) have F.

Again, that doesn’t seem generally true (in the actual world, or in all possible worlds). Red has the property of spanning a spectral reflectance range from, say, 660 nm to 690 nm, but surely none of its determinates do (even if red necessarily corresponded to that spectral reflectance range). It also has the property of being instantiated in the actual world and in possible world w, but not all its determinates do. And it has the property of triggering mostly cones of type L in the human visual system, but not all its determinates do. And being red or being a mammal have the property of being determinable properties (necessarily?), but surely not all their determinables do. Again, then, if this principle isn’t always true, why think it’s true of the mental determinable (being conscious or intentional) and the second-order property of being realized?

BASIC FUNCTIONAL ROLE PROPERTIES
Another response L&T consider: (a) it’s possible that there are dispositional properties which lack a categorical basis (either they are realized by non-categorical dispositional properties all the way down, or they are not realized at all), and (b) it’s possible that some functional/causal role properties are dispositional. Hence, contra (13), it’s possible that some functional/causal role properties lack a categorical basis, in which case they may either be realized by further functional/causal role properties all the way down, or basic (not realized at all).

To this, they respond that it is a “pyrrhic victory” for the contingent physicalist. So they seem to grant that some dispositional functional/causal role properties may be basic in the sense that they lack a categorical basis. But, they point out, worlds in which such bare dispositions exist need not be Cartesian worlds where mental properties are basic. And, remember, the motivation for contingent physicalism was to allow for the possibility of Cartesian worlds. Hence, the response seems to be, the possibility of bare dispositions fails to capture the motivation for contingent physicalism.

This is a weird response. For one thing, even if the bare dispositional worlds fail to capture the main motivation for contingent physicalism that has to do with dualism, they suffice to block premise (13). In which case, unless there is some argument L&T can offer to think that (13) is true, it’s unclear why we should accept it. For another, even if it’s true that bare dispositional worlds fail to capture the motivation for contingent physicalism (because they need not be dualist worlds), it offers another motivation for contingent physicalism (as L&T think of physicalism): namely, that if functional/causal role properties are realized in the actual world, there may be some worlds in which they aren’t, and ditto for mental properties (even if they are functional/causal role properties). In this respect, it’s weird to demand that one motivation for the contingency of physicalism has to capture another, as L&T seem to. Finally, since some bare dispositional worlds can also be dualist worlds, it’s wrong to say that bare dispositional worlds aren’t Cartesian worlds.

Ok, that’s quite a long list of questions/worries about L&T’s argument. As you can see, I need a lot of help! Now back to grading.

8 Responses to “Is Physicalism Contingent?”

Hi Philippe,

a few words that might explain premise 17 and the argument itself. What the authors say about this is very compressed, so I have no idea whether the way I interpret it is the same as what they meant. The argument would be the following, with my premise 3 as interpretation of their premise 17:

1. If a property F is a determinable, then necessarily it is a determinable (i.e. necessarily, it has at least one determinate instance)

2. Actually, being non-basic is a determinable, having being conscious as a determinate (being conscious is an instance of a role-functional property).

3. Necessarily, if a property F is a determinate of some property G, then all properties H that are determinates of F are also determinates of G.

4. Actually, all determinates of being conscious are non-basic. (from 2 and 3)

5. Actually, being conscious is a determinable.

6. Necessarily, being conscious is a determinable. (from 1 and 5)

7. Necessarily, being non-basic is a determinable. (from 1 and 2)

8. Necessarily, all determinates of being conscious are non-basic. (from 2, 3, 4, 6, and 7)

Hello Istvan, how are you?

Many thanks for the suggestion. It’s quite interesting—and neat, too. This certainly demands more work on the contingent physicalists’ part. And I’m interested to see how they could go on about to deflect your argument. Off the top of my head, I can think of at least 2 or 3 ways, some of which are, admittedly, a bit of a stretch.

(By the way, I don’t really see how your premise (3) is equivalent to (17), as I cashed it out: it seems that, maybe, if anything, something like conditional proof on your premise (4) and conclusion (8) might give you (17)?)

1) reject premise (1):
This may be quite esoteric, admittedly.

First, small point about how you characterise determinables in (1), as having a determinate instance. It seems that all determinates, if they are instantiated, have a determinate instance. So this won’t do. Typically, it seems, in order to be a determinable, a property F must have more than one determinate, and the different determinates of F must differ in some relevant way regarding their F-ness. This is vague, admittedly (“in some relevant way”). But think of red: if red only had scarlet23 has an instance, then I’m not sure why red should be regarded as a determinable.

Now, here’s how, it seems, one might reject (1). One way to read (1) goes: if F is determinable in some world w, then F is determinable in all worlds. Note that, given how you understand determinables (as having a determinate instance), it seems as though (1) will be false provided there are uninstantiated properties: if there is a world where F isn’t instantiated, then F doesn’t have a determinate instance in that world, in which case it’s not a determinable in that world.

Another way in which (1) could be false (given my suggestion about how to understand determinables) is if there is a world where F is instantiated, but its instances only make up one determinate—e.g., there is only one maximally specific type of scarlet instantiated w, and that’s the only instance of red in w.

2) another way to reject (1) and many of the other premises in the argument is by insisting that there are no determinable properties. Some physicalists often say things like this: “only maximally specific physical realizers exist (perhaps, they are physical tropes), but all realized ‘properties’, higher-order ‘properties’ and determinable ‘properties’ aren’t really properties, they are concepts or ways of talking (or thinking) about the different aggregations of real properties’. This, I take it, might be a kind of ‘just matter’ theory about properties rather than objects. Alternatively: ‘only natural properties are properties, sparse properties are simply classificatory schemes’. Now, I don’t like these sorts of views at all, but it seems that your argument wouldn’t have much bite against a contingent physicalist who endorsed it.

3) I’m really not sure about this, but it seems that, given my account of determinables, one could resist premise (2). One might insist that being realized is a second-order property of being conscious, though the latter isn’t a determinate of the former. If we require that the determinates of a determinable F have to be inexactly similar in the way they are F, then it’s not entirely clear that being conscious differs in any way, insofar as realization is concerned, from any other putative determinate of being realized.

4), now, I’m also getting a bit worried about the argument. I can see how the argument gives you:

all determinates of being conscious are non-basic.

which is premise (4). But I’m now (it’s very late) having a hard time seeing how you get:

necessarily, all determinates of being conscious are non-basic.

without further assuming that:

if G is a determinable of F, then, necessarily, G is a determinable of F.

which is different from your premise (1). In other words, it may be necessary that both being conscious is a determinable, and that being realized is a determinable. But it doesn’t follow from this that being conscious is necessarily a determinable of being realized. And, unless I’m missing something, I’m not sure how your other premises get us to (8). And, in fact, I’m not even sure whether (6) and (7) are really doing anything in this argument. What am I missing?

In any case, I’d still be interested to know if there are other ways (including more esoteric ways) in which contingent physicalists can resist the argument.

Cool, thanks! Neglecting for the moment your previous comments, let’s focus on your objection related to the validity of my argument. You’re perfectly right.
What we need I think is a premise like:

(P) If a property F is a determinate of some property G, then necessarily, F is a determinate of of G.

P together with the premise that actually consciousness is a determinate of non-basicness would give us:

(C) Necessarily, consciousness is a determinate of non-basicness.

(C) together with premise 3 in my original argument will give us:

(D) Necessarily, all determinates consciousness are non-basic.

My intuition is that (P) is true. Determinables are essential properties of their determinates. E.g. being an animal is a determinable of being a wolf, and also an essential property of it. If I’m right, then the crucial premise would be that consciousness stands in a determinate-determinable relation to non-basicness, in other words, that being non-basic is not any old second-order property of being conscious, but one of its determinables.

I read the passage from Phil Studies again, and there is no explicit mention of the premise that non-basicness is a determinable of consciousness; they only say that if consciousness is non-categorical “then presumably it’s essentially non-categorical”. Of course, we can’t take them as arguing from a premise that any second-order property is essential to what it is a property of. We have to take them as saying that there are two exhaustive and mutually exclusive categories of properties: basic and non-basic, so that if something is a member of one these classes, it can be taken as a determinate of that class, from which it follows that it is essentially a determinate of that class.

Hi Istvan, that’s much better, thanks! And I agree, (P) seems intuitive to me too. Which makes my worry about your second premise in the previous argument even more relevant: namely, that being conscious is not a determinate of being realized.

You now suggest a new motivation for this claim:
(a) 2 exhaustive/exclusive classes: either some property is realized R or it is not B.
(b) If something is a member of the R-class (or of the B-class), then it’s a determinate of that class.
(c) Given P, it is necessarily so.

But (b) simply re-asserts your premise (2) above, and I’m not sure exactly whether (a) really adds any additional support for (b).

Consider 3 stupid examples (sorry, don’t seem able to do any better today!):
i) there are two exhaustive/mutually exclusive classes of humans: the males and the females (assume). The property of being Philippe Chuard actually falls in the class of the males. If the property of being PC is a determinate of being male, then your premise (P) entails I’m necessarily a male. That’s all very good for my sense of virility but it’s intuitively false.

ii) again, two mutually exclusive classes: the males and the females. The property of having a beard falls in the first class. But surely, there could have been women with beards (even if there aren’t any actually). And there may be some actual ones, who knows?

iii) there are two exhaustive/mutually exclusive classes of computers: Macs and PCs. The property of being a computer sold in an apple store by an annoying 20-year old with a trendy blue t-shirt falls in the class of the Macs. But if being a computer sold in an apple store in such a way is a determinate of being a Mac, (P) entails that it is necessarily so. Which is false: Macs can be sold in all sorts of other stores (by less trendy/annoying shopping assistants), and there may be some economic reasons why Apple stores start selling PCs (it’s possible, God forbid!).

There may be some problems with these examples (aside from their extreme lameness), but one general feature is this: even if the two classes are exhaustive and mutually exclusive, it doesn’t follow that properties which fall in one of these two classes fall exclusively in the same class (the Mac example, the beard example). And even if they do, it doesn’t follow that they necessarily fall in that class—things could have been different. Hence, if (P) is true, not all properties that fall in one of two exhaustive and mutually exclusive classes are determinates of these classes.

That’s precisely what the contingent physicalists claim: there are two classes of properties, the realized and the basic. But across possible worlds, the property of being conscious can be found in both classes, even if in the actual world, it can only be found in the class of the realized properties.

Hello,

Thanks for reading and discussing our paper. Here are some responses to some of the issues raised in the discussion. This is just me (Kelly) speaking here - I think Joe plans to post some responses later.

Issue 1: Why think that physicalism as a necessary thesis brings along a commitment to brute metaphysical necessity in the first place?

Suppose physicalism is a necessary thesis; that is, suppose that if physicalism is true in the actual world, it’s true in all metaphysically possible worlds. In this case, if physicalism is true then the sentence “If a mental property is instantiated, it is instantiated ultimately in virtue of some physical property” is true in all metaphysically possible worlds. It would seem, however, that this
sentence is neither a logical nor conceptual truth. This, in short, is the sense in which it seems that physicalism as a necessary thesis brings along a
commitment to brute metaphysical necessity.

Issue 2: What about formulations of physicalism in terms of minimal physical duplicates of the actual world? Do such formulations change the dialectic in any interesting way?

I don’t think so. For consider the sentence “If a mental property is instantiated in a minimal physical duplicate of the actual world, it is
instantiated ultimately in virtue of some physical property”. Here we have the same worry. If physicalism is true and a necessary thesis, this sentence is true in all metaphysically possible worlds. It appears, however, to be neither a
logical nor conceptual claim.

Issue 3: Why all the talk about brute metaphysical necessity in the first place? Why not just start with functionalism and make the argument for the necessity of physicalism from there?

First, we wanted to motivate what we call the “identity doctrine” independently of functionalism by appealing to an admonition against brute metaphysical necessity, and then show that the functionalist has the best way of implementing
the doctrine in claiming that mental properties are identical causal role properties.

The more general reason for the focus on brute metaphysical necessity was this: we wanted to show that, while you might think that an admonition against brute metaphysical necessity suggests that physicalism is a contingent thesis (recall Issue 2 above), it actually suggests that physicalism is a necessary thesis.

Issue 4: Why think that if property P is a non-basic property in the actual world, it’s essentially non-basic (non-basic in any world in which it’s instantiated)? In other words, why think that the basic/non-basic distinction is absolute rather than world relative?

As you note, it’s obviously not the case that any property of a property is an essential property of that property, so we clearly wouldn’t want to appeal to such a principle here. Here’s one reason to think that if a property is basic, it’s essentially basic. Let’s agree to take seriously the idea of objective similarity between individuals. Since objective similarity is not a world-relative notion, then, if (as, say, Lewis is inclined to think) sameness in basic properties makes for objective similarity, we should expect that being basic is not world-relative either.

Remember, however, that we end up granting for the sake of argument that properties that are instantiated in a non-basic fashion in the actual world can be instantiated in a basic fashion in other worlds (recall our discussion of bare dispositions). So we don’t endorse the thesis anyway.

We do assume, however, the following: if P is a categorical (dispositional) property, it’s essentially categorical (dispositional). Since we grant for the sake of argument that bare dispositions are possible, we aren’t thereby
committed to the claim that the basic/non-basic distinction is absolute rather than world relative. We also assume that if P qua determinable is categorical (dispositional), its determinates are categorical (dispositional) as well.

So we actually don’t endorse what you identified as the “master argument”. We endorse a related argument, however, one cast in terms of the
categorical/dispositional distinction rather than the basic/non-basic distinction. Here’s a question, then, for you: do you find the argument cast in
terms of the former distinction rather than the latter any more plausible?

Issue 5: If mental properties qua dispositions can be instantiated in a basic fashion, is this not enough to show that physicalism is contingent?

Our claim is only that what folks typically have in mind when they say that physicalism is a contingent thesis is that Cartesian worlds are possible. If
we’re right, such worlds aren’t possible.

In reading over my post, I think I got Issue 2 wrong. Formulations of physicalism that appeal to minimal physical duplicates are (obviously) formulations of physicalism as a contingent thesis. The sentence I considered is true in all metaphysically possible worlds because of the appeal to actuality. So I don’t think there is an issue here.

Hello Kelly, thanks! Some of this helps. But I’m still confused by some things.

#1: Assuming that “if mental property M is instantiated, it is instantiated by physical property P” is true in all worlds, its necessity is brute since it is neither logical nor conceptual. This doesn’t really help, for a couple of reasons.

You seem to assume that either the necessary truth of a sentence can be explained logically or conceptually, or it’s a brute metaphysical necessity. Are these the only alternatives? If physicalism is necessary, it seems the necessary truth of your conditional owes to its truth-maker being a necessary fact or state-of-affairs (I can see how the truth of a sentence or proposition, if the sentence is necessarily true, can be explained logically or conceptually. But when we talk about metaphysical necessity, it seems we’re not primarily concerned with sentences—but with facts or states-of-affairs, denoted by those sentences). And to reiterate a previous point, physicalists often say that this can be explained in an illuminating way (that’s how you defined brute initially—as something that is not explainable illuminatingly, not as something that is not explainable logically or conceptually), if there can be an empirical explanation as to why, given the nature of M and P, the former necessarily depends on the latter. (Presumably, there is disagreement as to whether the explanation will end up being entirely empirical, or whether it’s a combination of empirical discovery, together with some conceptual analysis and some logical truths.)

Also, given that you admit that one central motivation for contingent physicalism is to allow for dualist worlds, I’m still puzzled as to why we’re even talking about brute metaphysical necessities here.

#2. Again, the suggestion was that, if you restrict supervenience to minimal physical duplicates of the actual world, I would assume you’ll likewise restrict the claim about realization to precisely the same worlds. The occurrence of what is a realizer state P in our world will ‘come with’ (not to say ‘bring about’ or ‘necessitate’) the mental state M it realizes in our world only in those worlds that are minimal physical duplicates of our world. Hence, realization doesn’t hold in every possible world. Which is why, by your lights, there’s nothing wrong with realization or supervenience being brute (again, I don’t see why it should be brute, but even if it is, it’s not clear what the problem is), since it’s not necessary. But if that’s true, your argument can’t even get started.

#4. The new argument for the necessity of realization seems to go like this:

(1)objective similarity is not a world-relative notion.
(2)Sameness in basic properties makes for objective similarity.
(3)Hence, being basic is not world-relative.

Not sure I understand this. I’d need to hear a bit more. Given (3), I take it that what you might mean by ‘world-relative’ is that x has F in a non-world-relative way just in case F doesn’t hold of object x in world w but not in world w’? Hence, (1) must mean something like: if x and y are objectively similar in world w, x and y are objectively similar in all worlds? And if similarity is a matter of sharing of properties, this must mean that x and y have the same properties in all worlds? Presumably, then, objective similarity must exclude relational properties, otherwise, even if x and y share all their non-relational properties in w, it could be that y has some extra relational properties in w’ which x doesn’t have? Still not sure what ‘objective’ here is doing? Do you mean ‘intrinsic’? Surely, relational and extrinsic properties can be objective? Even with this restriction in mind, I’m not sure what (1) really amounts to or why it should be true.

Also, the property of being realized (or not realized) seems to be a relational property. Couldn’t it be, then, that basic properties are relational, but that objective similarity still supervenes on them? If not, why not, exactly?

In any case, the following possibility still seems alive. An alien mental property M* (it is conscious or intentional) could be basic (i.e., not realized). In the worlds in which it is instantiated, it realizes some non-alien mental property M (a conscious/intentional property also instantiated in our world). M* is basic in every world in which it is instantiated. M is realized in every world in which it is instantiated. This, I take it, is compatible with saying that being basic is not world-relative?

On the other issue: that your master argument is not to be understood in terms of basic/realized, but in terms of categorical/dispositional, so that it relies on the following 2 assumptions: (i) if F is categorical (or dispositional), it is necessarily so; and (ii) if determinable F is categorical (or dispositional), then all its determinates are.

Sure, (i) and (ii) seem more plausible than (17) or (18) in my reconstruction. But, then, how this gets you to the claim that mental properties are necessarily realized is what I really don’t get.

# 5: First, the possibility of dualist worlds may be only one motivation for contingent physicalism (you yourself offer a second one, to do with worries about brute metaphysical necessities), surely it doesn’t have to be the only one. Also, the beginning of the paper suggests, I thought, that there is supposed to be a clash between contingent physicalism itself and realization–not just that the former is unmotivated?

More importantly, to repeat, if mental states can be dispositional, and you grant that dispositions can be bare, it seems possible that some mental dispositions are amongst the bare ones, and that a bare dispositional property is basic. In which case dualist worlds are possible after all. So, given what you seem to grant, I really don’t see how it’s been established that it’s impossible for mental properties to be basic.

Very interesting stuff but it seems a bit convoluted and the convolutions seem to arise from terminology.

What is a state? An arrangement of things (in space, time etc..).

What is a property? There seem to be two sorts of property: (1) a state induced in an instrument that is applied to a thing, (2) a state induced in a mind (usually one that is applied to instruments (like eyes) that are applied to a thing).

It is here that the apparent paradox of dualism arises: being a thing is different from measuring a thing. Owing to the constraints of measurement physicalism is limited to the study of the relations between states of things and the form of things. The physicalist should admit that a study of relations between things will never tell us what it is actually like to be someone else (though it might give us some empathic hints).

The fly in the ointment of this description of the relationship between physicalism and mental state is that there is no generally accepted, physical theory of the relations within the physical instantiation of a mental state or the form of a mental state that could give rise to our experience. Maybe, in years to come these relationships may be elucidated, particularly when form is given the same status as materialist functionalism.

However, in the “Modal status of materialism” the authors are impatient. They rightly point out that if “mental properties are identical to causal role properties, then it’s hard to see how they could be basic in any possible world”. True because causal role properties are just transfers of state from system to system and the understanding of these is the materialist component of physicalism (physicalism without the possibility of relativity and geometrodynamics).

The paper then takes a turn for the worse with “Remember, the requirement is that the instantiation of the mental property under this description has to be shown to be logically derivable from the instantiation of its realizer under its canonical description.
What sort of description other than a “role-description” is going to meet that constraint? We certainly can’t think of anything.” What is the difference between a line of electrons and a line of electrons that you pass by at high speed? The electrons are the same but how they appear and interact is very different. Do the two lines of electrons, identical in themselves, have different “role descriptions”?

The ectoplasm worlds are interesting but if we regard materialism as the simple study of the transfer of states from place to place then the quanta of the ectoplasm world (the unit of mental property) is susceptible to materialist analysis - the transfer of arrangements of these quanta from place to place would constitute a new materialism. (Without transfer how would the ghost be seen?). All that the authors have done is to shift the problem of the nature of the conscious state into the study of “ectoplasmons” rather
than electrons and protons etc. We would then be left with the problem of ectoplasmic materialism and whether we should really be dualists because consciousness is not contingent on ectoplasmons…

Something to say?